Hebrew Orthography

The following is pulled from a letter that I wrote to Nehemia Gordon when I thought that discourse was an option. These are three questions that need to be answered regarding Hebrew orthography if Gordon’s position is ever to be considered viable.

«If the original vowels were יְהוָֹה, why do we see כַּיהוָה instead of כִּיהוָה?» This applies to all of the attached prepositions, which are pointed in analogy to אֲדֹנָי and not like יְהוּדָה, for example. (In all of the following, a cholam may or may not appear above the vav.)

This must be explained. Why doesn’t it behave like every word that begins with יְ (yod-sheva)? I mean, even theophoric names, which arguably do bear their correct vowel markings with Yəhô- prefixes, behave exactly as expected. That is, we see יְהוֹנָתָן becoming לִיהוֹנָתָן with prefixes and יְהוֹאֵל becoming מִיהוֹאֵל. Why is it not the same with יהוה on its own?

The addition of prefixed prepositions causes predictable vocalic changes. For instance, if a word opens with a sheva in its first syllable, several things can happen. The most neutral of changes is for the sheva on the prefixed preposition to convert to a chirik. Thus, לְ־מְלָכִים “to kings” changes to לִמְלָכִים since two shevas do not stand beside each other unless the first is silent (sheva nach). In the case of words that begin with יְ, the two shevas side-by-side revert to chirik-yod-sheva, and that reduces to chirik-yod. For example, לִילָדִים < לִיְלָדִים* < לְיְלָדִים*.

This is predictable and should be what happens with יְהוָֹה, assuming that the vowels are natural to the name. According to the rules of Hebrew morphology, we should see לִיהוָֹה from a theoretical לִיהוָֹה < לִיְהוָֹה* < לְיְהוָֹה*.

«How can you explain the change from אֲדֹנָי יְהוָה to אֲדֹנָי יֱהוִה except as an attempt to prevent the reader from saying ʾĂḏōnāy ʾĂḏōnāy?» If people read יהוה as Yəhōvâ, we would expect them to read אדני יהוה as ʾĂḏōnāy Yəhōvâ. If the vowels were natural to the name, there would be no justification for changing the kamats to chirik in the first place.

«How do you explain how Yəhô- in a prefix (as a reduction of the Name) becomes Yā́hû at the end of theophoric names?» Where does the long vowel come from? We know that long vowels reduce in certain situations, but natural sheva does not lengthen inexplicably into other vowels. We would expect such things are אֵלִיְּהוֹ* ʾĒliyəhố (with ultimate stress) if the name were originally as you propose. How do you explain the long vowel in the first syllable of the Tetragrammaton in shortened forms?

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All of the above questions are easily explained on the position that יַהְוֶה Yahveh (or Yahweh) was the name and that ketiv-qere is in play to keep people from sounding the Name out phonetically and to force them to read ʾĂḏōnāy instead.

I sent these things to Mr. Gordon in a letter, which he said that he will not consider and that I should not write him again – because I suggested on another forum that he might be writing for the sake of the money. I’ll explain why I suppose that to be the case later on in this blog.